Short answer
Free cash flow to the firm is the cash available to all capital providers and is discounted at WACC to give total firm value, from which you subtract debt to reach equity value. Free cash flow to equity is the cash available to shareholders after debt payments and is discounted at the required return on equity to give equity value directly. FCFE = FCFF − interest × (1 − tax rate) + net borrowing.
Free cash flow valuation is conceptually straightforward and mechanically unforgiving. Nearly every mark lost comes from one of two errors: mismatching the cash flow with the discount rate, or mishandling the interest adjustment.
Get the pairing right and the rest is arithmetic.
The pairing rule
This is the single thing to internalise.
- FCFF is cash available to all capital providers — debt and equity. Discount it at WACC, which is the blended required return of all those providers. The result is total firm value. Subtract the market value of debt to get equity value.
- FCFE is cash available to shareholders only, after debt has been serviced. Discount it at the required return on equity. The result is equity value directly.
The logic is one of consistency: the discount rate must represent the required return of exactly the group whose cash flow you are discounting. Discounting FCFE at WACC values shareholder cash flows using a rate that includes cheap debt, producing an overvaluation. Discounting FCFF at the cost of equity does the reverse.
The formulas
FCFF from net income
FCFF = NI + NCC + [Int × (1 − t)] − FCInv − WCInv
- NI — net income
- NCC — non-cash charges, principally depreciation and amortisation
- Int × (1 − t) — after-tax interest expense, added back
- FCInv — investment in fixed capital (capital expenditure net of disposals)
- WCInv — investment in working capital
The interest add-back is the term candidates most often misapply. Interest was deducted before arriving at net income, but FCFF is cash available to all providers including lenders — so it must go back in. It is added back after tax, because the deduction saved the firm tax at rate t.
FCFF from cash flow from operations
FCFF = CFO + [Int × (1 − t)] − FCInv
Shorter, because CFO already reflects non-cash charges and working capital movements. Under IFRS, where interest paid may be classified in financing rather than operating activities, check whether the add-back is still required — questions test this.
FCFE
FCFE = FCFF − [Int × (1 − t)] + Net borrowing
Or directly from CFO:
FCFE = CFO − FCInv + Net borrowing
Where net borrowing is new debt issued minus debt repaid. New borrowing is cash available to shareholders; repayment removes it.
The second form is the cleanest and is worth being the one you reach for. It requires only three inputs and avoids the interest adjustment entirely.
A worked example
A firm reports: net income $180m, depreciation $60m, interest expense $40m, capital expenditure $95m, increase in working capital $25m, new debt issued $30m, debt repaid $10m. Tax rate 25%.
FCFF = 180 + 60 + (40 × 0.75) − 95 − 25
= 180 + 60 + 30 − 95 − 25 = $150m
FCFE = FCFF − 30 + (30 − 10)
= 150 − 30 + 20 = $140m
Now value it. Assume FCFF grows at 3%, WACC is 9%, the market value of debt is $500m, and 100 million shares are outstanding.
Firm value = 150 × 1.03 / (0.09 − 0.03) = 154.5 / 0.06 = $2,575m
Equity value = 2,575 − 500 = $2,075m
Value per share = 2,075 / 100 = $20.75
Had you discounted the same FCFF at a cost of equity of, say, 12%, you would have produced a firm value of $1,717m — a 33% difference from a single mismatched input.
When to use which
FCFF is preferred when:
- FCFE is negative, which is common for firms in a heavy investment phase or with substantial debt repayment. A negative cash flow cannot be sensibly grown and discounted.
- The capital structure is changing materially, because FCFE is highly sensitive to borrowing decisions while FCFF is not.
- The firm is highly leveraged, where small changes in the equity assumptions swing the answer dramatically.
FCFE is preferred when:
- The capital structure is stable, so net borrowing is predictable.
- You want equity value directly without needing a market value for debt.
- The firm pays no dividends or pays dividends unrelated to its capacity to pay, making a dividend discount model unsuitable.
The first point is the one exams test most: a changing capital structure argues for FCFF, because the interest and borrowing terms that make FCFE volatile are stripped out.
Common errors
Forgetting the tax adjustment on interest. Adding back the full interest rather than Int × (1 − t) overstates FCFF by the value of the tax shield.
Using net income instead of CFO in the short formulas, or vice versa. The two routes require different adjustments; mixing them double-counts or omits terms.
Getting the working capital sign wrong. An increase in working capital consumes cash and is subtracted. Non-cash items such as short-term debt and cash itself are excluded from the working capital calculation.
Forgetting to subtract debt after discounting FCFF. FCFF discounted at WACC gives firm value, not equity value. Skipping the final subtraction leaves you with a per-share figure that is far too high — and it will be among the answer choices.
Using book value of debt when market value is available. The same principle applies here as in WACC: market values, unless the question directs otherwise.
How it fits the wider valuation toolkit
Free cash flow models sit alongside dividend discount models and multiples-based approaches. The choice between them follows the firm: dividend models need a stable, meaningful dividend; free cash flow models need predictable investment and financing patterns; multiples need genuinely comparable peers. The equity valuation guide works through the selection logic, and the same discounting mechanics reappear in Level 2 Corporate Issuers.
Related Reading
- CFA Equity Valuation Models — Choosing between DDM, FCF and multiples
- WACC Formula Explained — Getting the FCFF discount rate right
- CFA Level 2 Corporate Issuers — Capital structure and financing decisions