HomeBlogNAVPS Formula: How to Calculate Net Asset Value Per Share (And the Fee Traps)
Level 1 James Whitfield, CFA · September 3, 2026

NAVPS Formula: How to Calculate Net Asset Value Per Share (And the Fee Traps)

Short answer

NAVPS equals total assets minus total liabilities, divided by the number of shares or units outstanding. Liabilities include accrued but unpaid management and incentive fees as well as borrowings and payables — omitting the accruals is the most common exam error. NAVPS is an accounting value; closed-end funds and listed REITs trade at market prices that may sit at a premium or discount to it.

Net asset value per share is one of the few genuinely simple formulas in Alternative Investments. The complication is never the division. It is deciding what belongs in the numerator, and knowing when NAV is not the value that matters.

The formula

NAVPS = (Total assets − Total liabilities) / Shares or units outstanding

It is the accounting book value of a fund expressed per unit. For a mutual fund, ETF, closed-end fund, hedge fund or REIT, it represents what each unit would be worth if the fund liquidated its holdings at carrying value and settled its obligations.

Open-end funds strike a NAV at each valuation point, typically daily at market close, and subscriptions and redemptions transact at that price. Closed-end funds calculate a NAV too, but their shares trade on an exchange at whatever price the market sets — which is where the interesting questions live.

What belongs in liabilities

This is where exam questions are built. Liabilities include not just borrowings but accrued fees and expenses: management fees earned but not yet paid, incentive fees crystallising, audit and administration costs, and any payables outstanding at the valuation date.

A question that supplies gross asset value, borrowings and an accrued management fee is testing whether you deduct all three. Forgetting the accrual produces a NAVPS that looks entirely reasonable and will be sitting in the answer choices.

Worked example 1 — basic NAVPS

A fund reports:

  • Investment portfolio at fair value: $480 million
  • Cash: $22 million
  • Borrowings: $60 million
  • Accrued management fee: $2 million
  • Other payables: $1 million
  • Units outstanding: 20 million

Total assets = 480 + 22 = $502m. Total liabilities = 60 + 2 + 1 = $63m.

NAVPS = (502 − 63) / 20 = 439 / 20 = $21.95

Drop the accrued fee and the payables and you get $22.10 — close enough to look right, wrong enough to cost the mark.

Fee structures and sequencing

Alternative Investments fee questions and NAV questions usually arrive together, and sequencing decides the answer.

The management fee is charged on assets under management — or on committed capital in private equity, which is a different and usually larger base. Read which one applies.

The incentive fee is charged on profits, and the exam will specify whether it is computed gross or net of the management fee. Net-of-management-fee is both more common and more punitive, and it changes the answer materially.

Two further conditions appear constantly:

  • Hurdle rate. The incentive fee applies only above a threshold return. A soft hurdle pays on all profits once the hurdle is cleared; a hard hurdle pays only on the excess above it. The difference can be several percentage points of fee.
  • High-water mark. No incentive fee is payable until previous losses have been recovered. A fund that fell 20% and then rose 15% remains below its high-water mark and earns no incentive fee despite a positive year.

Worked example 2 — three years of 2 and 20 with a high-water mark

A hedge fund starts at $100m. Fees are 2% of year-end assets under management and 20% of profits net of the management fee, with a high-water mark and no hurdle. Gross returns: +30%, −15%, +25%.

Year 1. Gross value = 100 × 1.30 = $130m. Management fee = 2% × 130 = $2.6m. Value after management fee = $127.4m. Profit above the $100m start = $27.4m. Incentive fee = 20% × 27.4 = $5.48m. Ending value = $121.92m. High-water mark is now $121.92m.

Year 2. Gross value = 121.92 × 0.85 = $103.63m. Management fee = 2% × 103.63 = $2.07m. Value = $101.56m. The fund is below its high-water mark, so no incentive fee. Ending value = $101.56m. High-water mark remains $121.92m.

Year 3. Gross value = 101.56 × 1.25 = $126.95m. Management fee = 2% × 126.95 = $2.54m. Value = $124.41m. This exceeds the high-water mark of $121.92m, so the incentive fee applies only to the excess: 124.41 − 121.92 = $2.49m. Incentive fee = 20% × 2.49 = $0.50m. Ending value = $123.91m.

Over three years the investor's gross return was +38.4% while the net position rose 23.9%. The high-water mark did real work in year three — without it, the incentive fee would have been charged on the full $22.85m of year-three profit rather than on $2.49m.

The Alternative Investments guide covers the remaining structures, including clawbacks and catch-up provisions in private equity.

Why funds trade away from NAV

For closed-end funds and listed REITs, market price and NAV are separate quantities that routinely diverge. The exam expects you to explain why.

Discounts commonly arise from illiquidity of the underlying holdings, high ongoing fees, weak manager reputation, embedded tax liabilities on unrealised gains, and simple supply-demand imbalance in the fund's own shares. Structural discounts of 10–20% persist for years in some closed-end sectors.

Premiums can arise where the manager has scarcity value, where the underlying assets are otherwise inaccessible to the investor, or where the market simply disagrees with the carrying values used in the NAV calculation.

The point behind the point

That last cause is the conceptually important one. NAV is only as reliable as the valuations feeding it.

For a fund holding listed equities, marks are observable and NAV is trustworthy. For a fund holding private companies, infrastructure or property valued by periodic appraisal, NAV is an estimate that can lag reality by quarters. In a falling market, an appraisal-based NAV will overstate value until the next valuation cycle catches up — which is why listed vehicles holding such assets can trade at persistent discounts that look irrational and are not.

This is also the mechanism behind the smoothed return series often reported for private assets. Appraisal-based valuations understate true volatility and understate correlation with public markets, which flatters risk-adjusted return measures. If a question presents a private-asset fund with a suspiciously high Sharpe ratio, valuation smoothing is usually the answer it wants.

Exam checklist

  • Deduct all liabilities, including accrued fees and payables
  • Check whether the management fee base is AUM or committed capital
  • Check whether the incentive fee is gross or net of the management fee
  • Check for a high-water mark before assuming any incentive fee is payable
  • Distinguish a soft hurdle from a hard one
  • For private-asset funds, remember NAV rests on appraisal values and may be stale

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